Quote:
|
Originally Posted by jmaellis
brand-spanking-new ump. here with a question.
I get the infield fly rule and it's purpose. In the OP the ball landed in foul territory and then rolled fair. Why, in this scenario isn't this just a foul ball .. or is it? I'm having trouble following the different replies with regard to the correct ruling in this situation.
|
Set aside the IFR* in your mind for now. Any batted ball that settles or is first touched in fair ground before passing the bases is a fair ball. It does not matter if it touched foul ground first. Past the bases, it has to touch fair ground first, but that is not the question here.
So, if it is a fair ball, the IFR* applies if the other conditions are met.
Fair/foul and IFR* if fair are two separate issues. As Tom says repeatedly and more clearly, an IFR* infield fly is the same as any other fly ball except the batter is automatically out.
* IFR, not IFF, infield is one word.