What am I missing here? We all know that no run can score if a runner misses the base he is forced to and is subsequently called out on appeal for the third out. Why in your scenario is the appeal denied?
That play is from a quiz posted on the J/R website [
www.rulesofbaseball.com/quiz1.html]. They acknowledge that there is not necessarily a definitive ruling on all the plays they offer, but they believe they are giving the rulings that Major League umpires would likely make on the field. I can't fault your logic, since if the runner missed 2B and was then thrown out at 3B, he could certainly
then be called out on appeal for the advantageous fourth out force play on the miss of 2B.
However, J/R apparently figure that the rules governing a missed base—that the runner is in the immediate vicinity and attempting to return, so an appeal is technically not yet possible—simply put the runner out without liability to be put out again for the advantageous fourth out. (The fact that he initially slid
past the bag establishes a "touch" for the purposes of scoring the run.)