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Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
Didn't the original poster clarify that B Teams inbound play happened after A's made basket? So if that's the case, if B1 has the ball for a throw-in and passes this throw-in ball to B2 who has one foot inbound and one oob, then B2 can continue oob to complete the throw-in. So in this scenario, it does matter if B2 has one foot in and one out.
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Joe,
If B2 has one inbounds when B1 passes him the ball, it would be a throw-in violation.
And the scenario was about B2 passing from OOB to B1 who was inbounds, so the OOB pass scenario is different than the one described.