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Originally Posted by Splute
Let me see if I understand you. You are going to award B1 the ball for slapping A1s hand, resulting in the ball going OOBs? So if B1 had only hit the ball and not the hand, then its out on B1? Therefore you do not agree that the "hand" on the ball, is the same as the ball? That being said, you must call a foul each time the player, while shooting, gets their "hand" hit while in contact with the ball... correct?
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What you are seeing is the literal wording of the rules vs the real world.
The natural way to read 10-6-2 is to take it as the hand is part of the ball, unfortunately it isn't literally written that way...so officials are in a dilema...call it literally or call it fair.
Which is why you can read some of the responses like I don't see well enough to see only hand on hand, or it's impossible for B1 to just hit the hand and no ball.
So book ref it and give the ball to B or real world it and give it back to A.
