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Originally Posted by Robert Goodman
I'm trying to figure out what the difference would be if there were no such exception. Are they implying that in the absence of such an exception, if K kicked their own kick on 1st, 2nd, or 3rd down that was already on R's side of the neutral zone, that the enforcement would make it K's ball?
Robert
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No that is not what is being said. The rules regarding who will have possession of the ball are not related to the illegally kicking of the ball. ALl the exception says is that there will not be a LOD should the penalty be accepted . Ex: 3d and 25 at the A-10. Team A quick kicks and ball barely makes it to the A-20 before coming to earth. A45 illegally kicks the bounding ball at the A-20 and it flies OOB at the A-30. B can choose: Take the ball at the A-30 (result of play) or back A up to the A-5 and give them a 3d and 30.