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Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
You should table your imagination. Now the story changes. Before, the player's "momentum" took him in for a layup. Now, he "dribbled" in for a layup.
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No, as usual you jump to conclusions in an overly adolescent attempt to try and make me wrong. In my scenario there was two situations. Both where just about the same. I had a player going in for a layup who was fouled out top, the players momentum was going towards the basket and he just kept going after the whistle, then he got hammered at the basket shooting the layup. Both fouls at the basket where harder then the fouls up top.
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Don't matter anyway. In your original post, you said you called a multiple foul. My point was that the play couldn't be a multiple foul by rule no matter what scenario you try to dream up now...or then. Yes, you can call an intentional technical foul in the play you described above, but that would be a different type of foul than a multiple foul.
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The rule says at approximately the same time. So I guess you want to have a big arguement about the definition of approximately? I'm not going there, just tell you that this is what I reason at the time, and as I also told both coaches, I'm giving you the better of the deal. I could have called a technical on the 2nd foul which would have given the player multiple foul shots and the ball back. This way, posession changes after we shoot the free throws. It's just two of your players is going to get charged with a foul here. Coach didn't like it and said it was ridiculous. I told the coach, we got a simple remedy here, tell your players to quite fouling so damn much, that way, I don't have to blow my whistle, I got no call to make, simple, plus there was no need to foul that player that hard the 2nd time.
JR, I'm sure that I did something wrong by your standards here. Fact of the matter is, when players start knocking other players to the floor after the whistle, I'm going to call something.