[greymule]

I'm aware of 9.1.1K. In that case, the force at 3B was removed because the runner missed 3B AFTER a following runner was put out at a previous base. So I guess in Blue316's question, though we're not actually dealing with a missed base, the order of appeal does matter. Missed bases and bases never reached might be different, since a runner misses a base at a specific time but can't be said to have failed to reach a base at a specific time.

In Fed, if the runner was forced at the time he missed the base, then a following runner being put out would not remove the force on appeal. For example, R1 on 3B, R2 on 1B, one out. B3 hits double, misses 1B, R2 goes to 3B but missed 2B. Since both were forced at the time they missed the base, the order of appeal there would be irrelevant. Even if the defense appeals 1B first, the force at 2B would remain in effect and R1's run would be disallowed. If that's wrong, somebody please let me know.

In NCAA, if R1 is on 1B and B2 hits a ground ball to F3, and F3 steps on 1B to retire B2, that removes the force on R1. The play at 2B is then a tag play. Now if F3's throw to 2B is wild and R1 misses 2B and makes it safely to 3B, is an appeal at 2B then a force play? Does the force that existed at 2B at the beginning of the play--but that was removed before the runner missed 2B--remain throughout the play for the purpose of appeal?

I've read BRD's explanation 17 times and thought I had it straight, but now I'm unsure. The answer will probably be obvious when I read it for the 18th time. Unfortunately, I don't have the BRD with me.