[greymule]

I'd say you got it right. What does it matter when the run scored in relation the R1 being out? The third out was made by the batter runner before he reached first base safely. No runs can score.

I can't find a game-ender like the one you describe, but the Fed casebook does cite this play: 9.1.1 Situation I: With the bases loaded and one out, B5 hits a line drive to the right field fence. R1 and R2 score. R3 is thrown out at the plate. B5 goes to third but misses first. Ruling: No runs score. B5's out for missing first was the third out.

Logically, if, even after the "winning" run scores, the batter runner is still liable to be put out, how can another runner (in your case, R1) NOT be liable to be put out?

The game is over "except for baserunning infractions." Well, there was a baserunning infraction, so the game wasn't over. R1 could still be put out, and the batter makes three.

I am eager to hear authoritative replies on this play, but right now I'd rather go into court having nullified the runs than having scored them.