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Old Sun Jul 15, 2007, 02:34pm
Jurassic Referee Jurassic Referee is offline
In Memoriam
 
Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
Quote:
Originally Posted by lrpalmer3
A1 ends his dribble by picking up the ball. He starts a baseball pass to A2 but stops himself in the wind up, causing the ball to go 10 feet straight up in the air. He catches the ball without moving his feet.

Has he violated? If not, can he choose either foot as his pivot or must his original before-pass pivot still be used?
No violation. His original pivot foot remains the pivot foot.

Same as casebook play 4.15.4SitE(a).
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