[IamMatt]

Thanks. I figured the only reason for F2 to throw to 1B would be if she thought there was (or was unsure if there was) a D3K call. Just curious if the F2's throw could have been a legitmate attempt to prevent BR from getting to 1B on a mistaken D3K. I know the OP didn't say F2 failed to catch the pitch, but I couldn't think of any reason she would throw to 1B unless she thought there was a possibility of a D3K call.

Of course if the Batter heard "Ball" and F2 didn't, and F2 thought it might be a D3K call, the Batter would have been right around the plate and F2 would/should have gone for a tag instead of throwing to 1B. I am guessing if F2 had tagged the Batter then returned the ball to F1 you would not have made the same call?

Did anyone explain why she threw down to 1B?