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Originally Posted by Tweet
My question is, does R2 get 3rd? Because the rule says he does if he is forced to advance, which he was when the ball was hit, but the force was removed when it touched R1 so which timing do we go by???
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It's not a timing issue. If you read the rule (7.08f), you'll notice that the complete phrase is "nor may any runner advance, unless forced to advance." On runner interference, the ball is dead immediately, so the initial force play cannot be a factor in placing the runners.
The question is then whether the award to BR forces a runner to advance. In your situation, it does not force R2 to advance. Waltjp's case illustrates how the award works (though he doesn't explain the principle behind it).