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Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
I believe what Dave is asking is, was there actually a play with which the act caused interference.
The rule note states that drawing a throw MAY be INT, not that it actually is INT. The rule states the the act has to INT with the defense's ability to make a play on another runner. If there were no other runner's moving, or in jeopardy, there was no play with which to INT.
Modified to change reference
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Do you think it could/would be interfering
with a play if F3 ignored R1 and R3 because R2 looked like the easiest out? IOW, good judgement about the best play, just not recognizing R2 was out because of R2's actions.