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Originally Posted by BktBallRef
The latest baseball question from another forum:
"Man on second. Pitcher toes the rubber wheels and throws the ball directly to the second baseman playing straight away. No one ever moved to cover second, appeared to be a set play where the pitcher throws to a position player instead of the bag to get the runner to break for third. The umpire call a ball . I have heard from some pretty knowledgable baseball people that it should have been a balk because of the intention to deceive to a ball as the umpire called to not calling anything. BTW the crew calling the game last nite said the umpire made the correct call in calling a ball. What is the correct call?"
Thanks fellas.
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The other guys gave the correct ruling - its nothing.
My confusion is that you have two umpiring crews who actually said that calling a ball on the batter was the correct call???
That's nuts. So the "pretty knowledgable baseball people" that you spoke of might need to get in their books a little more.
I would be really really curious as to which rules they actually thought might apply to this situation to call it a ball.
Thanks
David