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Originally Posted by BktBallRef
The latest baseball question from another forum:
"Man on second. Pitcher toes the rubber wheels and throws the ball directly to the second baseman playing straight away. No one ever moved to cover second, appeared to be a set play where the pitcher throws to a position player instead of the bag to get the runner to break for third. The umpire call a ball . I have heard from some pretty knowledgable baseball people that it should have been a balk because of the intention to deceive to a ball as the umpire called to not calling anything. BTW the crew calling the game last nite said the umpire made the correct call in calling a ball. What is the correct call?"
Thanks fellas.
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Think about it this way ... as long as he stepped toward 2nd, he didn't have to throw the ball AT ALL ... so why would there be a penalty for throwing it to a fielder?
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson
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