Quote:
Originally posted by greymule
Case book 2002, 8.1.1D: "When may a batter be hit by a pitch and not be awarded first base? Ruling: (1) The pitch is a strike, (2) the batter does not attempt to avoid being hit or (3) with no runners on base, the pitch is illegal and is not ball four."
I'm concerned about (3). Of course, "with no runners on base" is part of the definition of "illegal pitch." (2-18-1)
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Well, the "with no runners on base" is part of the definition. Of course, so is "with runners on base."
Quote:
A pitcher can (unintentionally) bean a batter with an illegal pitch and get away with a ball rather than a hit batter?
6-2-1: "PENALTY: For defacing the ball . . . the ball is dead immediately. The umpire may eject the pitcher. If such defaced ball is pitched and then detected, it is an illegal pitch."
First pitch to batter hits him. Batter goes to 1B. Umpire determines that pitcher had discolored ball with dirt. Umpire determines pitch was illegal and calls batter back to box. Count now 1-0.
Pitcher delivers 0-2 pitch to batter. Umpire sees spit flying off ball. Batter hits ball over fence. Stay here, batter. Count is 1-2.
These situations can't be correct, and I wouldn't call them this way. But somebody tell me what I've missed.
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You haven't missed anything. It's part of the FED ruling on balks and illegal pitches.
Change your examples to a balk (one that is not also an illegal pitch). You'd still kill the ball and not award first / allow the home run.
By rule, you'd do the same thing on the illegal pitch.
(TO be clear, I'm not advocating that you call it in the examples you gave. And, I'm not supporting the FED position that a balk / illegal pitch should be an immediate dead ball.)