Thread: 1st and 3rd
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Old Tue Apr 17, 2007, 04:05pm
BigGuy
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Quote:
Originally Posted by johnnyg08
Yes, Big Guy...I agree with you and I don't think that there's a difference between that interpretation and the OBR...that sounds like a good way to explain this to a coach...I guess I'll wait and see what others think.
I've done a cut and paste of the discussion thread on the subject. I've removed the names of the posters to protect both the innocent and the guilty!!! Enjoy
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The "Skunk Play" in our area is when R1 takes the extended leadoff into right field. The question came up that if he's taking that lead, when is his baseline to 2B or back to 1B established?

Is it when F1 steps off? When he throws to F4 or F3? When F1, F3, or F4 advance toward him as if to tag?
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Per Referee Magazine's article on the play, his lin eis established when a play on him begins. I would have to say that when F1 steps off is too soon--he may go to third, he may do nothing. But once he throws to F3 or F4, runs out towards the runner, or even fakes the throw forcing the runner to decide what to do, or the runner moves towards either first or second while any of this is happening, his path is established. Kind of like AtlBlue said about something else--not sure how to define the exact moment, but I'll know it when I see it.
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quote:
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The "Skunk Play" in our area is when R1 takes the extended leadoff into right field. The question came up that if he's taking that lead, when is his baseline to 2B or back to 1B established?

Is it when F1 steps off? When he throws to F4 or F3? When F1, F3, or F4 advance toward him as if to tag?
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As soon as R1 steps to whichever base he is moving he defines his baseline.
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As soon as R1 steps to whichever base he is moving he defines his baseline.

Not if no one is playing on him it's not.

The baseline is a straight line to the next base or the previous base when a play is being made on him. It is your judgment as to when a play is being made, within the definition of a play (an attempt to retire a runner).

The more R1 is making a joke (not a travesty!) out of the play, the more likely I am to consider any motion toward him a play, which gives him 3' on either side of a line at that point.

But until someone makes a play on him, he can sidestep, take a zig-zag path or turn somersaults, he is not under any restriction as regards to a basepath.

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As soon as R1 steps to whichever base he is moving he defines his baseline.

Not if no one is playing on him it's not.

The baseline is a straight line to the next base or the previous base when a play is being made on him. It is your judgment as to when a play is being made, within the definition of a play (an attempt to retire a runner).

The more R1 is making a joke (not a travesty!) out of the play, the more likely I am to consider any motion toward him a play, which gives him 3' on either side of a line at that point.

But until someone makes a play on him, he can sidestep, take a zig-zag path or turn somersaults, he is not under any restriction as regards to a basepath.
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Lets for argument sake say R1 is in right field and B2 comes up and slaps the ball to left field. Even though there may not be a play made directly on him, does not R1 still have to run directly to second base to reach the base or can he run in a zig zag pattern? Just curious
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Second part of the rule (8-4-2a) is cannot run outside the basepath "to avoid being tagged or to interfere with a fielder." Long as he does neither--zig-zag, somersault, do backflips. Though AtlBlue is right--the more he goofs around, the likelier I am to call him out if I have any doubt about a play being made.
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Many get too hung up on the three ft line. Think about the play that you see thousands of times over your career, a runner running the bases and he makes a big round. A runner can go as far or as close to a base as he runs. The SIO play is no different. Unless someone is trying to make a play then where he goes is irrelevant.

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does not R1 still have to run directly to second base to reach the base or can he run in a zig zag pattern?

He can run any pattern he wants UNTIL the defense makes a play to tag him. At THAT point, he is restricted to three feet on either side of a straight line from where he is to the next or previous base.

It's not an out to run out of the baseline. It's an out to run out of the baseline to avoid a tag. But judgment plays a huge part here. If a runner is running basically from 1B to 2B, I'm not getting out my tape measure to see if he went 3' out of the line. He would have to be AT LEAST 3' (and probably a bit more) for me to be SURE he was out of the basepath while avoiding a tag.

But if that same runner is in RF and being a jacka$$, I judge 3' MUCH more harshly, and an "attempt to tag" much more liberally.


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Thanks for the responses.

You have reinforced my thought that his baseline is determined at the point when a play is being made on him.

So, it seems to follow that if R1 continues to run (in a straight line) further into right field after the defense has initiated a play on him, he would be out because he has strayed further than 3 feet from the baseline as defined.
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Yes
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