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Originally Posted by TwoBits
I'm curious as to the answer. No one else seems to be.
I'm rethinking my answer though. If the BR had already touched first base, then ran past R3, then R3 is no longer entitled to first base,
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Why not? What is keeping R3 from returning to 1B? Then again, why would R3 continue after the third out of the inning has been executed?
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The bat issue in softball is as much about liability, insurance and litigation as it is about competition, inflated egos and softball.
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