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Old Tue Mar 20, 2007, 09:13am
Mark Dexter Mark Dexter is offline
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First off, wouldn't this be a false multiple foul? A double foul requires each team to commit a foul. In this situation, both were committed by team B.

Great situation (and all too common in intramurals!). The Talmudic question here is, obviously, does an unsporting technical foul take place when the unsportsmanlike behavior occurs or when the official signals the T?

You could make the 6-7-7 argument here. The ball is dead when "a foul, other than player or team-control, occurs." If the profanity made the ball dead, then A1 couldn't have had a shot, and B1's foul never could have occurred. As such, I'd say that B1's foul came first, then B6's foul - no one would line up for the 4 FT's.

Until the NFHS clarifies this case, though, I do think it's a bit vague, and you could argue going either way. I, however, would administer the technical shots second. No way B is having a chance to get the ball back just because they committed another foul.
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