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Originally Posted by SAump
Muddied over R2 passing R3 are the actions of R3 retreating past 3B. I would add to your argument that R3 cannot legally run back toward 2B by rule. Things may have been different between bases, but a rule prevents R3 from running back to 2B after legally obtaining 3B. That cannot happen. I would also add to your argument that as long as R2 has not passed 3B, then R2 cannot be considered past R3. Like you, I am not convinced that R2 has passed R3 in this situation. Therefore, I cannot rule R2 out for passing a preceeding runner.
I agree the playing action on R3 places R3 in "limbo" until action allows an umpire to make an out call on R3. As presented, R3 must be out by tag and R2 must be safe on 3B. If both runners are considered "safe on the same bag" and both are tagged, then by rule, R2 would be out ( I also agree with you) as the bag belongs to R3 by FED rule 8-2-7 and OBR 7-3.
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I hate to disagree with you, since you are kind of supporting my argument ... but I would ask you what rule you are using to claim that R3 cannot run toward 2nd. I'd love it to be true, but I don't believe it's true. He can't run the bases backward to create a travesty of the game ... but that doesn't mean he simply can't run the bases in reverse order at all.
Picture just R3. He gets caught in a rundown, is running from the catcher, gets to the bag and can't stop. He can certainly run back toward 2nd. You're not going to call him out the moment he takes a step toward 2nd, are you?