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Originally Posted by Red_Killian
My only question would be, did you consider an intentional on the initial foul by A1?
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In this particular case, calling it intentional wouldn't have made any difference. The technical foul after the personal gives possession of the ball to Team A, even if A1's foul is ruled intentional.
The intentional call might send a message, if that's what you were thinking about, but it wouldn't make any difference in how the play was administered.