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Originally Posted by Damian
If the question was intentionally throwing the ball off of the defensive player and the rule that is quoted says it the player cannot dribble again unless there was a pass or fumble touched by another player, wouldn't that conclude that this is a violation?
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How could you possibly conclude that? The "intentionally throwing it at another player" is a pass. Didn't you read the case book play cited? It's exactly the same situation.