View Single Post
  #8 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jan 17, 2007, 01:56pm
bigdogrunnin bigdogrunnin is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Oct 2006
Posts: 359
What if . . . you assume that B! in contact with the inbounds portion of the court is considered to part of the court because of his/her contact with the court. Therefore, if A1 touches B1 then he/she is actually now touching inbounds and we then have a violation . . . B's ball? Just thinking out loud . . .

In real time and real life, intentional foul on A1. Shoot and go!
Reply With Quote