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Originally Posted by Dan_ref
OK. Let me play this back so we all understand what you are saying.
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You're going to have to play it back again, so that I understand wtf
you are saying. What you've written in that post makes absolutely no sense whatsoever.
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So if B1 touches the ball OOB on a throw-in by A1 team B gets the ball at the original spot.
That's your claim?
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Um, no. I claim to have written all of Shakespeare's sonnets. But that's not really relevant to this thread.
If B1 catches A1's throw-in while B1 is out of bounds, then B1 has committed a violation of 9-2-10 and Team A gets another throw-in from the original throw-in spot. That's my claim. And that's what I've been saying all day.
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Care to defend how an opponent can cause the other team to violate the throw-in?
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Um, no. But since I never claimed that, I don't feel compelled to defend it.