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Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Here's what I know. And it's really all I know, pertaining to this play. Not what I think. This is what I know:
The throw-in pass shall touch another player (inbounds or out of bounds) on the court before going out of bounds untouched. That happened. So the inbounder did not violate. That much I know. (I don't know about anybody else mentioned in 7-6-1 yet.)
No player shall be out of bounds when he/she touches or is touched by the ball after it has been released on a throw-in pass. But someone WAS out of bounds when he/she touched the throw-in pass. So that someone violated. That much I know. (I don't know if it was the inbounder's teammate or opponent; but that also doesn't matter.)
The penalty for the violation that I know occured is a designated spot throw-in at the spot of the previous throw-in. That much I know.
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OK. Let me play this back so we all understand what you are saying.
It doesn't matter if the player who was OOB when he was first to touch the throw-in was a team mate or an opponent. It's just a throw-in violation by rule. And we all know on a violation the *other* team gets the ball. So if B1 touches the ball OOB on a throw-in by A1 team B gets the ball at the original spot.
That's your claim?
Care to defend how an opponent can cause the other team to violate the throw-in? And then cause the player who violated to gain control for *his* team?