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Originally Posted by David Emerling
I disagree with this.
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You disagree with what?
That the LBR goes into effect on R1 as soon as the BR touches 1B?
That if R1 does not, then, "immediately" start moving that she has violated the LBR?
That the LBR is an immediate dead ball?
That the BR should be returned to 1B after the LBR call on R1?