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Old Fri Oct 20, 2006, 02:25pm
Dan_ref Dan_ref is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RookieDude
JR and/or other forum experts...do you remember a few years ago when there was a big discussion, here, on whether or not airborne shooter A1 was called for a player control foul when A1 PASSED the ball before the crash into B1, who had LGP?

Well here is a similar question I have seen somewhere this year:

T or F: If airborne A1 passes the ball instead of shooting, and then illegally contacts B1, he or she has committed a team-control foul.

I say True....or did I?

Case book play 4.19.7(d) is close...but, do you have any other references that may explain the airborne shooter/passer better?
I am not a member of the forum infallible club but if airborne A1 passes the ball he is not a shooter and any foul on A1 is not a PC. This is pretty simple, I think there's even a case play on it (my rulebooks are in the attic behind the Statue of Mr Big Dawg and I'm too lazy to go get them).

But, if A1 - airborne or not - commits a foul on B1 while his team has control of the ball it is a TC foul. So the answer to your question is T.
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