JR and/or other forum experts...do you remember a few years ago when there was a big discussion, here, on whether or not airborne shooter A1 was called for a player control foul when A1 PASSED the ball before the crash into B1, who had LGP?
Well here is a similar question I have seen somewhere this year:
T or F: If airborne A1 passes the ball instead of shooting, and then illegally contacts B1, he or she has committed a team-control foul.
I say True....or did I?
Case book play 4.19.7(d) is close...but, do you have any other references that may explain the airborne shooter/passer better?