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Originally Posted by ChuckElias
So the consensus is that both situations are legal? Even tho the person is touching in the backcourt in both cases? If the ref is part of the floor, and is touching the backcourt, doesn't that make him in the backcourt? I just want to have some good rationale before I go back to the class with an answer.
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Yes. Yes. Yes but only the part of the official that is actually touching the backcourt.
Your rationale is
"What Would Woddy Do?"
or.....
The player's foot touched the part of the official located in the front court. Using the exact same logic, if he hadda stepped on the backcourt foot, the player woulda stepped in the backcourt.
Foot touching in the frontcourt = frontcourt; foot touching in the backcourt = backcourt.