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Thu Sep 28, 2006, 07:24pm
Nevadaref
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Join Date: Nov 2002
Posts: 15,015
In reply to JR:
Quote:
Originally Posted by
oc
No, but in my situation the ball clearly gets frontcourt status before being touched. Although it appeared to meet the standards for backcourt according to the letter of the rule-that answer didn't feel right to me. I am not going to argue though.
If you, Chuck, and BktBallRef
all think it is a violation I will just sit back eat some popcorn and let someone else hash out a losing battle.
Sure, fine, just forget about the guy who gave the original answer!
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