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Originally Posted by HawkeyeCubP
Yes, it does. I think I let myself get confused (not difficult) because it didn't spell out where the ball was when the interference occurred - over fair or foul territory - it can be assumed though, I suppose, that it was over fair territory when the INT occurred, since the ball landed in fair territory. I think that was my deal.
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I think that's the point, which "territory" the ball is over when the INT occurs.
AAAAAAAA for the effort to post all that detail!
