John L.,
This sounds like a bad call to me, for two primary reasons.
The balk rules do, in fact, require an "in contact" pitcher to throw (more or less) "directly" to 1B, once he has "committed" to a move in the direction of 1B, and he is properly balked if instead he throws to the F3 who is "well off" the base and has no possibility of making a play. (No such requirement in regard to 2B or 3B - not even required to throw, only to "step".)
The following is from the J/R discussion of Balks addressing this point:
Quote:
[It is a balk if a(n "in contact") pitcher]
...
11. steps to first base
...
(c) and throws to first baseman who, because of his distance from the base, is (or would have been) unable to try a tag against the runner at first base.
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So, by your description (if I'm reading correctly),
1. the pitcher had legally disengaged and was, therefore, no longer constrained by this proscription. (Strike 1!)
2. the F3 tagged the freakin' runner out! So, even if the F1 threw "from the rubber", he was not in violation. (Strike 2!)
JM