Wed May 10, 2006, 10:15am
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Official Forum Member
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Join Date: Nov 2002
Location: The Land Of The Free and The Home Of The Brave (MD/DE)
Posts: 6,425
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by LMan
If the ball is hit "up the first base line," then how can it be fielded other than by moving into the base path? Would not BR be moving away from the rolling ball in any case, to avoid stepping on it?
If F3 is legitimately attempting to field this ball and not veering to 'crash' the BR (btw, what is F1 doing?  ), then yes, shes fielding. In this case the BR must move out of the baseline to avoid F3. The "basepath" has no meaning here, since the ball has not yet been fielded and an attempt to tag/put out the BR has not yet occurred.
I'm still looking for the "no reasonable right to be there" part of your sitch  |
The post said R1, not BR, but the same principle would apply.
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Officiating takes more than OJT.
It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
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