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Originally Posted by nickrego
I think you have to consider the step / feint to 3rd base as stepping off / disengaging the Rubber for the sake of consistency, and here is why…
If a pitcher, while engaged with the Rubber, spins and steps towards 2nd base, and either throws or feints to 2nd base, isn’t the pitcher considered having stepped off / disengaged the Rubber ? YES.
The pitcher didn’t step “back” off the Rubber with the Pivot Foot in this case either. They stepped towards 2nd with the Non-Pivot foot, just as it has been described stepping towards 3rd with the Non-Pivot foot to throw or feint. If a pitcher made this move to 2nd, and then over threw to 1st into DBT, you’d awards 2 bases. So why would 3rd base be any different ?
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Nick,
I reread your post.
In your example of the pitcher turning toward 2nd and throwing to 1st, are you saying he does this all in one motion? If so, I'd call a balk on the basis that he is not stepping directly toward the base to which he's throwing. I.E. He can't step toward 2nd and throw to 1st.
What I
think you are saying is that he steps toward 2nd, fakes, and
then, when that is completed, initiates a throw to 1st. Is that it?
In this latter case, I would consider the pitcher as an infielder, whether or not his foot happened to still be in contact with the rubber. I think FED would not, however, based on the casebook play.
David Emerling
Memphis, TN