|
Actually, it does make sense. When R2 is hit by the fair batted ball, it's interference and the ball is dead. But that leaves us to deal with the BR. He can't come back to bat since the ball was hit fair. He can't be declared out--he did nothing wrong. The logical thing to do is send him to first.* Now, since the ball is dead when it hits R2, no runners can advance; they must return to their TOP bases--R3 to third, R2's gone via the out, R1 to first, and the BR to first. But wait! We can't have two runners on the same base here; therefore, R1 is "pushed up," so to speak, to second by virtue of the BR being awarded first base.
My educated guess as to why the BR is given first is because R2's getting hit prevented the defense from a possible out. This out could have been made at first in a traditional F6 to F3 ground out, but the offense is penalized for taking away the defense's chance to get any out. Maybe they would have played on the runner who was hit. In that case, the BR would have made it to first anyway. So, in a nutshell, the runner who was hit is called out. BTW, if a runner intentionally interferes in this situation, the BR's being awarded first is scored as a fielder's choice and not a hit.
*What would you do here: Same situation--bases loaded with no outs and a 1-1 count on the batter when the batter hits a pop fly that drifts and remains foul near third. In his attempt to get back to third to not be doubled up there, R3 runs into F5, who drops the ball.
|