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I hope I am following this discussion correctly...
SanDiego Steve wrote "If it was unintentional in the umpire's judgment, all runners who are forced advance, and the batter-runner is awarded first base, and with bases loaded, a run would score."
A run scores on interference on R2 with bases loaded no outs? In Fed? Really?
Original post says, "My partner, on the bases, immediately kills play, and calls R2 out. R3 returns to 3rd, R1 advances to 2nd, and BR advances to 1st."
And several replies say he got it right.
I'm a little confused now.
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