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B1's foul on A1 occurred prior to A1 contacting B2. We have a foul on B1. I would expect shot to count and that A1's PC foul on B2 never happened - incidental contact after the B1 foul. I can't see a ref trying to sell a double foul in this case. How do we know that the initial B1 foul didn't contribute to A1 contacting B2? If so, can you really call a foul on A1 when a foul committed against A1 caused A1 to contact B2? Even if this is not precisely what happened, do you really want to call a false double foul and to try to explain that to me and my opponent? Better to tell B's coach that B committed the foul first. Won't be the first time that a poor play by one player negates a great play by another.
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