[BoomerSooner]

First of all I'm a basketball official that has read the football rule-book, but by no means consider myself an expert, so take all the shots you want on anything I may misinterpret. Just looking to be educated.

Anyway, I'm going to use some generalities and relate them to the Reggie Bush play that many are contending was a forward pass.

First, a QB throwing a pass with a forward arm motion is hit and the ball comes out directly to the ground but forward. Ruling is Incomplete Pass.

Second, a QB with receiver 5 yards downfield uses a non-forward arm motion (i.e. underhand or shovel pass type motion) and the ball hits the ground. Ruling is Incomplete Pass.

Third, same as 2, however this time QB is violently yet legally hit as he tries this pass. Obviously without seeing my example it is tough to make a ruling, but one can see that it would be a difficult ruling to make, and this could be argued either way.

One official may say the hit caused the ball to come lose and regardless of the direction it is a fumble, while others may say that the QB intended to make a pass. A third arguement (not sure how this is handled) might be that since the QB didn't use a standard forward arm motion he isn't protected by that rule.

As it relates to R. Bush it could be argued that the hit caused the ball to come out (even if he did intend to lateral it regardless of direction). There was at least 1 Texas player making a play on Bush, and if memory serves another was joining in on the hit. Also it must be considered whether or not the hit caused the ball to go forward.

Just my way of looking at it, I know this is much to think about in the time span the game officials had, and probably not even worthy of discussion, but maybe just maybe, I've got something here.