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I've thought long and hard about this and have come close to changing my mind. My original opinion was that of shave, as I didn't think it was an equitable rule. Now, I'm not so sure. I think there ARE situations where the rule is inequitable, but, for example, in last night's Tenn/Bama game where the Vol runner fumbled out of the end zone, it would truly be inequitable to allow the runner to excuse his fumble and bring the ball back to the spot -- or even back him up with a penalty (that's not a good idea, since it can't be flagged until well after the play). Thus, I don't have a problem with Bama getting the ball in this case on their 20.
There are still two plays that I have a problem with under this rule: the runner on the sideline who fumbles at the two, and it barely breaks into the end zone and goes out the sideline, and a play where possession has changed deep in team A's territory, and team B losses possession out of the end zone (side or end). However, I have come to the conclusion that there is no real way for the rules to distinquish between one of these plays and others where the rule is invoked (like Tenn/Bama above).
For example: this play happened in the NFL, in Chicago, in the mid'80s. Bears punting from inside the 20 (punter on about 10), 4th and at least 10 or more. Punt is blocked, and defense temporarily gains possession of the ball, but being inexperienced ball handlers, fumbles out of the end zone. Bears' ball, first and 10 from their 20 (assuming NCAA rules; using NFL teams only for play example). The Bears do absolutely EVERYTHING wrong (4th down; blocked punt), and end up with the ball, first down. In my opinion, this is still inequitable, but for rules consistency, it has to be that way.
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