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Old Tue Aug 16, 2005, 11:28am
Dan_ref Dan_ref is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Dexter
Quote:
Originally posted by Dan_ref

2 fouls??

I don't think so.

You can send A1 to the line, A2 to the line, or no one to the line.

But no way send both.
Would I send both? No in 99.9999995% of cases.

Could I send both? Absolutely.



A1 shoots - try has started, ball is live.

B1 fouls A1 before A1 comes down to the ground - ball is still live (foul on defense during a shot - 6-7 Exception), the try has not ended (4-40-4).

A2 taps the ball - considered the same as a try, this does not end A1's try, unless the first shot was determined to be "certain(ly) unsuccessful."

It seems to me the only way A2 can tip in a rebound that is *not* "certain(ly) unsuccessful" would result in offensive BI.

Well, in 99.9999995% of cases at least.

Anyways...we agree you *could* call it this way. Not sure you would want to though, even .0000005% of the time.
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