Quote:
Originally posted by Matthew F
Quote:
Originally posted by aevans410
Think about it this way guysWhy would any team throw a "rainbow" to the outfield? Most players could go to the concession stand, get a hot dog and coke, go to the dugout and get a handful of seeds and then get to 3rd base before the throw got there.
There is no balk here, lets not try to make situations that prove each other wrong. There were a few people who know quite a bit about baseball telling you it isn't a balk, lets just leave it that way.
|
Because the defense could use this as a trick play...
The pitcher turns to throw towards 2B, F8 is breaking towards 2B, F1 lobs a throw to F8 who catches the ball about 25 feet behind 2B and guns down the runner advancing to 3B.
I understand that if the pitcher disengages the rubber, he can throw anywhere he wants. But if the pitcher is still in contact with the rubber, does a lob to the outfield constitute a balk since the pitcher is obviously not throwing to an occupied base?
And how many times have I heard on this board that umpires should take into account the pitcher's intent?!?
|
Matthew F.,
By rule, an in contact pitcher is allowed to
feint a throw to occupied 2B or 3B (
not 1B) as long as he makes a step to the base he is feinting to. He is not required to throw, but, if he chooses to throw, he may throw the ball
anywhere he chooses - even while in contact - and it is
not a balk!
He may throw it to the centerfielder with the express intent of deceiving the runner that he has made an unintended bad throw, and it is perfectly legal for him to do so.
He has met all the requirements of 8.01 and 8.05, so this is a legal deception of the runner.
JM