Quote:
Originally posted by mick
Quote:
Originally posted by LDUB
Quote:
Originally posted by gsf23
I've seen the bell unrung, I saw it in the majors at the beginning of last season.
Runner at second, batter hits a ball down the first base line that 1st base umpire calls foul. Manager comes out to argue, the crew gets together, change it to a fair ball, place the batter at second and score the runner.
So, in the majors at least, there is precedent to unring the bell.
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The Federation specifically prohibits that.
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LDUB,
I can see where a verbal "Foul Ball" make the ball dead immediately. [5-1-1h]
But R3 scored [5-2-2c], R2 is still at 2b (probably)
R1 is safe by [8-1-2b].
So now we have a "dead ball" misapplication of Rule.
By what rule may we not make it right?
It does not seem the "Foul!" call affected any part of the play during unrelaxed action.
mick
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Mick,
Have you seen the following "enhanced" FED Official Interpretation,
brand new for 2005?
"
SITUATION 3: With one out and a 1-1 count, the batter hits a high fly ball in left field near the foul line. The umpire declares Foul Ball as the fly ball is subsequently caught by the left fielder. RULING: Once the umpire verbally declares Foul Ball, the ball is dead and treated as foul ball. The batter will return to bat with a 1-2 count and still one out. (5-1-1h)"
No, I most certainly did NOT make this up!!! Go to the FED website and see for yourself.
http://www.nfhs.org/scriptcontent/va...Footer=BB_FOOT
I believe this ruling clearly supports LDUB's assertion. So, under FED, we have R3's run nullified, R2 back at 2B and the batter back at the plate with a strike possibly added to his count.
Or am I misreading this interpretation? (God, I
sure hope so!!!)
JM