Quote:
Originally posted by jcor
I realize that if the ball is touched by the infielder then hits the runner you have no infraction. If the ball passes an infielder who does not touch it and strikes a runner, what determines whether or not an infraction has occurred?
Thanks.
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Great question. We just discussed this exact situation in a super long thread. I think that many umpires have many different thoughts on this subject. If the ball passes an infielder excluding F1 and hits the runner and a second infieder would have had a chance to make a play than the runner is out. The point of controversy is what constitutes a second player having a chance to make a play? Hopefully, Papa C will respond because he is the expert on this subject. He discussed something called the "string theory". Admitedly, how this theory works has slipped my mind. Maybe he would be kind enough to go over it again. Also, does anyone know how we can find the last thread on this subject?
Greg
[Edited by Gre144 on Jul 14th, 2001 at 10:28 AM]