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Old Fri Mar 25, 2005, 12:15pm
ljudge ljudge is offline
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Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: Mullica Hill, NJ
Posts: 798
I have what's probably a very stupid question but not having my rule book handy and reading a ruling in Referee (April 2005 ed. - page 71) has me confused.

Play: With one second remaining in the fourth quarter, team A trails, 7-6, and has the ball, fourth and 10 on the 50 yardline. Quarterback A1, finding no open receiver, decides to run. A1 scrambles and advances to team B's five yardline. Realizing he will not make the endzone, he throws a desperation forward pass. Ineligible A2 catches the ball in team B's endzone.

This case play had to do with the new rule which I'm NOT interested in at the moment. So, let's change this slightly. Say it's 2:00 minutes to play.

The ruling says that A1 is guilty of throwing an illegal forward pass. I agree with that. Additionally, A2 is guilty of offensive pass interference and of being an ineligible downfield.

My question:

How can you have an ineligible player downfield on an ILLEGAL forward pass. By logic a player is not illegally downfield until the untouched pass crosses the NZ. Additionally, I know if an ineligible touches a pass it's OPI. They're saying it's OPI too.

How would you enforce the foul? It's a running play. Assuming B wanted to accept the OPI where would it be enforced (assuming you can have that call?). It's not loose-ball play so the only way you could enforce is 15-yards from the spot of the pass (and of run).

Again, I'm assuming the Referee ruling is correct. What am I missing? This is driving me nuts trying to figure out enforcement.
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