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I've got nothing.
By the sounds of it, A2 never controlled the ball, and in order to call a backcourt violation the team must have front court control.
So not only do I have nothing, but I think that A2 could grab the ball either while standing in the frontcourt or moving into the backcourt.
Edit: This is wrong, team control by A has already been established so the ball gains front court status when touched by A2, so it would only be a backcourt violation if a member of team A touches the ball while it is still in the backcourt. So technically I've still got no violation. Just looking back at my post my reasoning was completely off.
[Edited by ref18 on Feb 14th, 2005 at 01:41 PM]
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