Passing on a foul????

[DownTownTonyBrown]

You know, after you speak up about something... especially in a curt manner, it is sure to happen to you.

Passed on a foul last night and subsequently passed on a violation. Should have know better than to make my earlier comments.

Home team is getting kind of clobbered on rebounds. Home girl gets both hands on rebound. Visitor is grasping for her share of the rebound and bumps the home player enough to cause ONE foot to move a couple of steps. I'm getting ready to call a foul if anything more happens to disrupt the home rebounder. Visitor defense suddenly clears and rebounder is alone. Rebounder makes big sweeping pivot to clear the ball.... ooops that was a different foot than the last one she pivoted on...

Nice strong move on the non-pivot foot. Ooh well. Nobody said a word. They probably would have if I had called the travel.

Just goes to show the validity of the statement "Had To Be There."

Actually ended out being a good, close game. HTBT

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally posted by DownTownTonyBrown
You know, after you speak up about something... especially in a curt manner, it is sure to happen to you.

Passed on a foul last night and subsequently passed on a violation. Should have know better than to make my earlier comments.

Not necessarily. Tough to make a hard-and-fast rule, as in:

http://www.detnews.com/2004/highscho...hool-34104.htm

Personally, you can put me in the half/fast category.

[ChuckElias]

Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
http://www.detnews.com/2004/highscho...hool-34104.htm

The only thing I'm left wondering is how the score can be 59-57 with 40 seconds left, and 65-55 at the end of the game. How did the losing team lose two points?!!?!

[jebPE]

From a fan's perspective, first let me say that I am not at all envious of your job.

With that said, I would rather see the right call, even it goes against the team I'm cheering for.

There was a somewhat similar situation last night at a small-town rivalry game (BIG rivalry game...always brings out the worst in both sides).

Game is tied with 0:45 left. A1 deflected B1's pass, gained control and started dribbling down the sideline. B1 then made contact with the quicker A1, A1 stepped out of bounds, then stepped back in bounds and resumed his dribble down the sideline.

Referee whistled for an OOB violation by A1.

If I've read the rules correctly, shouldn't A1 have been called for a technical foul?

Since A1 was not fouled (according to the no-call), A1 MUST have left the court of his own volition, thereby committing a technical foul (I'm sure THAT would've gone over real well with the crowd ).

I understand it is easier to think about these things in hindsight as opposed to heat of the moment, I just prefer accuracy regardless of the consequences, as I mentioned earlier.

I'm just curious to know others' opinions.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally posted by ChuckElias

The only thing I'm left wondering is how the score can be 59-57 with 40 seconds left, and 65-55 at the end of the game. How did the losing team lose two points?!!?!

If you read closely (do squirrels have good eyesight?) - you'll see that the score was apparently 59-57, but a basket was taken away from the team with 57 points - apparently because a foul had been called before the layup.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally posted by jebPE

Game is tied with 0:45 left. A1 deflected B1's pass, gained control and started dribbling down the sideline. B1 then made contact with the quicker A1, A1 stepped out of bounds, then stepped back in bounds and resumed his dribble down the sideline.

Referee whistled for an OOB violation by A1.

If I've read the rules correctly, shouldn't A1 have been called for a technical foul?

Since A1 was not fouled (according to the no-call), A1 MUST have left the court of his own volition, thereby committing a technical foul (I'm sure THAT would've gone over real well with the crowd ).

If B1 made sufficient contact with A1 to force A1 out-of-bounds, then a foul should have been called on B1. If no foul was called, then you can only call a technical foul on A1 if A1 went out-of-bounds to gain an illegal advantage. That wasn't the case in this situation, so the only call that you can make on A1 would be a violation for stepping on a line while dribbling. You don't call T's on the shooter for going out of bounds after making a layup, do you? Make sense?

Welcome to the forum.

[jebPE]

Thanks for the welcome, JR.

I agree B1 should have been called for the foul.

The tricky part here is "of his own volition".

Is A1 legally out of bounds as a result of contact with B1?

Is A1 allowed to come back on the court and resume the dribble (assuming the ball is never out of bounds).

It seems to be a moot point if a foul should have been called.

I don't think the layup scenario would be relevant, because A1 would not be the first person to touch the ball after a made basket.

Regardless, thanks for the input.

(FYI, I'm a rules buff...something my golf buddies REALLY appreciate. )

[Camron Rust]

Originally posted by jebPE
Thanks for the welcome, JR.

I agree B1 should have been called for the foul.

The tricky part here is "of his own volition".

Is A1 legally out of bounds as a result of contact with B1?

Is A1 allowed to come back on the court and resume the dribble (assuming the ball is never out of bounds).

It seems to be a moot point if a foul should have been called.

Or, was the defensive play what forced A1 OOB but was not sufficient for a foul. Perhaps B1 made it legally to the spot and A1 ran into B1. There can be no foul and also have A1 end up OOB without it being of his own volitoin. It may be due to good defense or a poor reaction to the defense.

[jebPE]

I agree (I think). If B1 had LGP against A1 and there was no foul, the only logical conclusion is that A1 left the court of his own volition to get around B1 (assuming B1 had LGP), thus breaching the rule.

This was not the case, though. A1 was quicker than B1, and made it to the spot faster than B1.

The rule makes sense to me (although I prefer the NCAA penalty...violation rather than a T).

In light of the way the officials were calling the game that night (they appeared to be letting rough play slide a bit), I would've preferred a no-call (inaccurate, but CONSISTENTLY inaccurate).

A1 made a good play on the pass, B1 hustled to try and get the ball back (thus contacting A1), but A1 had passed B1 once he came back in bounds and was on a fast break.

But again, ultimately, I prefer the game to be called as accurately as possible.

After all, IMO, the purpose of any sporting activity is not just to win, but to learn sportsmanship.

If one takes the position that it is OK to let some rules slide, then ultimately all rules will slide. Then you could have coaches that encourage their teams to break the rules until the officials say something about it, which could help lead to a society that encourages winning over sportsmanship.

But, I digress.

As I said in my first post, I am not envious of your job.

[BOBBYMO]

DownTownTonyBrown

"I know if I was your partner, I would sure be wondering what you were doing."
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One man practicing sportsmanship is far better than 50 preaching it.
- Knute Rockne
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Tony, If you were my partner I would be wondering why you wern't watching off ball. We can't be having four eyes all on just one player.

Just giving you a hard time........... I couldn't pass one that one