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Fed rules only.
1) Two outs. R1 steals to second as R3 heads for home. R3 touches home at the same time R1 gets thrown out at second (now there are 3 outs). Does the run count?
2) Top of the first inning. Defense wants to substitutes F5 before he has had his first at bats. I allow the substitution. Offensive coach says I can't do that since F5 hasn't had his first at bats. Who's right? (He told me that on two separate occasions umpires have not allowed a substitution in this situation.
3) Courtesy runner comes into the game to bat. Coach says he can't do that because he already entered the games as a courtesy runner. I allowed the substitution and explained to him that a courtesy runner can enter in the game just so long is he does not enter the game in the same half inning that he was a courtesy runner. Also, I explained that he can no longer be used as a courtesy runner after he enters the game. Who's right?
[Edited by Gre144 on Apr 19th, 2001 at 09:21 PM]
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