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Old Thu Sep 09, 2004, 09:34am
Carl Childress Carl Childress is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by scyguy
after reading the tossed glove thread, I began trying to think of other FED rules which seem to conflict with common sense. Please let me say that I have the utmost respect for those that establish and interpret the FED rules, but the tossed glove situation seems to be contrary to common sense. Can anyone think of another rule which could apply?

Guy:

I can give you the silliest FED rule with this play:

R2. B1 singles. R2 scores, but he misses third. The defense throws the ball to third, F5 says: "The runner missed third," and the umpire -- who saw it -- calls out R2.

Why? It was a clear violation. Why didn't the umpire call him out without an appeal?

The football referee doesn't wait for the defensive coach to appeal there was holding on first and ten.

The basketall referee doesn't wait for Team A coach to claim there was goal tending by Team B.

Serena Williams doesn't have to appeal that her opponent's serve was out.

Baseball is the ONLY sport where a significant rules violation must be appealed.

Now, don't couple batting out of order with missing a base. A player might bat out of order, and the coach deliberately does not appeal because he gains no advantage. That cannot be the case with a baserunning error. The defense ALWAYS gains when that appeal is upheld.

Now, don't say: "Well, that's the way they do in OBR." That's an excuse, but it's not an explanation.

The explanation is simple: Baseball rules are designed to favor the offense. Forcing the defense to appeal a major blunder is just another way of "helping" the offense.

So, back to my original question:

WHY does the umpire have to wait to "call the foul"? What baseball tenet is protected by that statute?

Don't give me history or harmony. I want a "baseball"reason.

Of course, I've been asking that question for more than 50 years, and nobody has ever provided an answer.
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