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Old Wed Aug 11, 2004, 11:46am
ABoselli ABoselli is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2002
Posts: 710
You've got it!

An easy way to think of it also is that A is entitled to all the yardage it gained without the benefit of a foul. So if A1 runs from his 20 to his 40 but his lunkhead teammate held a B player at the 35, A is entitled to all those yards he got without the aid of an illegal act by his teammate. That's why we mark off from the spot of the foul, because he got the rest of those yards only because (theoretically) his buddy fouled B.

In this example, it would bring up 1st and 5 as the line to gain is still the 30 (let's assume it was first down and ten which I can because I made the play up - I can do whatever I want) and we went 10 yards back from the 35, repeat the down.



[Edited by ABoselli on Aug 11th, 2004 at 12:56 PM]
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