Quote:
Originally posted by cbfoulds
R3, 2 out; tie score, bottom of the final inning.
BR hits to the gap; R3 scores & BR reaches 1st safely.
Game over, Home team wins, right? BUT WAIT!!
BR "retreats" from 1st to join the celebration around the plate, defense throws to 1st baseman who holds the ball securely in hand or glove while in contact with the base. (Or tags BR, actually, either works)
If the play @ 1st is a force and "retreating" toward home "reinstates the force", then the run doesn't score - 3 outs, bring on the next half-inning, score's still tied. This could go on for a while.
The play at 1st is NOT a "force", although, yes indeedie, BR has an "obligation" to advance. If BR reaches and touches 1st before being put out, but (being a typical bonehead) retreats toward home for some reason HE (not the base) must be tagged to make the out; and if the tag should happen to be the 3rd out, any run which reached the plate before the time of the tag WILL SCORE.
There is, in fact, a reason for everything.
[Edited by cbfoulds on Jul 23rd, 2004 at 01:06 AM]
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I don't think it matters whether you consider the play at first a force or not-- in this game winning situation the run scores when R3 has touched home and B/R has reached first base safely. All the requirements of 4.09 are fufilled: there's no missed bases, B/R was not put out before touching first base, and there is no force out-- yet-- and there isn't going to be a force out because the game is over immediately, according to 4.11 (c).
Consider if your situation had R1,R3 instead of just R3. Now R3 touches home, R1 reaches 2nd base safely, B/R reaches first, and then R1 goes toward first to congratulate B/R for his game winning hit. Defense throws to 2nd. Is he out and the run nullified because of a reinstated force play? I say no; the game is already over.
The plot thickens if there is no potential to end the game. Assume R3, R1, and B/R singles. R3 touches home, R1 touches and stands on 2nd base, and mistakenly believes that time has been called. He realizes that he is still wearing some batting armor, and moves toward his 1st base coach while removing it. Is the force reinstated? If put out, is the run nullified? Can he be put out by tagging 2nd base? I argue (with only moderate conviction) two points: 1. He isn't "retreating", he is just confused, and so the force is not reinstated. 2. If the umpire judges that he is retreating, this is effectively a new play following the play that led to R3 reaching home, so the run scores.
Dave