[greymule]

Your partner was correct. You don't wait until play stops to call a runner passing another. Call the following runner out immediately.

However, are you sure in this case there was actual passing? I haven't thought of the play at 3B before, but at 1B, if Abel is standing on 1B and Baker overruns 1B, I don't believe that Baker is considered to have passed Abel simply for overrunning 1B. Baker has to pass Abel on the basepaths to be out—i.e., take a step left toward 2B.

The play at 3B isn't really the same, since runners cannot overrun when retreating, but did the preceding runner stay in the (extended) baseline, or retreat slightly toward 2B such that the following runner "passed" him?